Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 15:21
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What does it mean if you dream your dad died?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Kellen Moore: I like where our quarterbacks are heading - NBC Sports
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Democrat announces run against Ernst after her 'We're all going to die' comments - ABC News
What's (not “whats”) the rule?